Keeping things simple here;- It is now generally accepted that, using the same PCR tests as they use on the population, covid 19 was present in water samples taken from sewers in Europe and Brazil as long ago as October (maybe even March) 2019. That said; ask yourself two simple questions;
1. If the virus was present in the population at that time why didn't it spread like wildfire and kill the predicted millions when everyone was hugging and kissing and shaking hands, mass events were taking place as normal all over the world, airlines where conveying people all over the world and almost no-one was wearing a mask?
2. Why did the disease suddenly run rampant though the population of the whole world very shortly AFTER lockdowns were imposed?
I think we all know the answers to both these questions but most people don't - they don't even want to or are too ignorant to ask them. I invite you all to politely pose these questions to anyone you interact with when the subject is raised (and let's face it, it's all everyone is talking about lately) and please feel free to copy and paste to social media etc.
PS. An argument may be made that the tests on the water samples may have been faulty (false positives/negatives etc). That argument would then imply that the PCR tests on the alleged "infected" are faulty too - QED.